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In Australia, An Ebay Sale is a Sale 267

syousef writes "An eBay sale is a sale says an Australian New South Wales State Judge in a case where a man tried to reneg on the Ebay sale of a 1946 World War II Wirraway aircraft. The seller tried to weasel out of the deal because he'd received a separate offer $100,000 greater than the Ebay sale price. The buyer who had bid the reserve price of $150,000 at the last minute took him to court. 'It follows that, in my view, a binding contract was formed between the plaintiff and the defendant and that it should be specifically enforced,' Justice Rein said in his decision." I haven't found anything like this in previous discussions; have there been similar decisions like this handed down in the US, Canada, or Europe?
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In Australia, An Ebay Sale is a Sale

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  • Auction vs Sale (Score:4, Informative)

    by Anonymous Coward on Friday August 03, 2007 @11:00AM (#20101515)
    It has already happend a few times here in Poland that people were obligated by court to sell the auctioned stuff (cars) for the bid amount, that was usually waaay lower then market prices (2 or 3 times lower).

    On the other hand - whenever there is a super low bid (lets say sum equal to a few dollars) because somebody forgets to set a minimum price, the court usually decides that the auction is a salesman's mistake and voids it.
  • by Anonymous Coward on Friday August 03, 2007 @11:00AM (#20101523)
    A car dealer made a promotion with a starting price of 1. The car sold at an unreasonably low price and the dealer tried to negate the sale. The court decided [typepad.com] that there was a binding contract and the bidder got the car for the low ebay price.
  • Re:Sale.. (Score:5, Informative)

    by ubuwalker31 ( 1009137 ) on Friday August 03, 2007 @11:13AM (#20101763)
    Ah, legalese often confuses non-lawyers, and for good reason...its highly technical and specific.

    An auction is a *type* of sale. The auction itself is merely a method of attaining a price. The contract of sale is created on the falling of the auctioneer's hammer, or similar event. If a reserve price is not reached, the goods may be sold to the highest bidder, or withdrawn. Whether or not an online 'auction' falls under the common law definition of an auction is highly dependent upon each country's law...and in this case, I believe the judge says that it does, which might be a departure from existing Australian Common Law.

    The interesting thing about this case is that the Judge gave the winner the airplane. Usually, if you win a court case like this, you only get money damages unless the goods are unique or very rare. A World War II Wirraway plane, 1 of 5 left in the world, certainly qualifies for the legal remedy of "specific performance".
  • Auto sales too? (Score:3, Informative)

    by Sparr0 ( 451780 ) <sparr0@gmail.com> on Friday August 03, 2007 @11:13AM (#20101769) Homepage Journal
    I haven't read EBay's policies lately, but I think I recall that they say that auctions for cars are NOT binding contracts... I would probably expect the same to apply to airplanes, if that is still the case. Too busy to look it up now, maybe I will later or a friendly karma whore will reply :)
  • by fbjon ( 692006 ) on Friday August 03, 2007 @11:15AM (#20101793) Homepage Journal
    You and the GP forget that the language can also be referred to as Australian. Hence the grammatically correct "In Australian.." rather than "In an Australian.."
  • Is the sale binding? (Score:2, Informative)

    by bigrigdriver ( 322895 ) on Friday August 03, 2007 @11:16AM (#20101803)
    A few minutes spent with Google search reveals that sale negitiations are not binding UNTIL the seller accepts an offer from a potential byer. Then it becomes a contract to sell. Makes no difference if the negotiation is face to face or over the internet.

    At least, that's the opinion of US and UK law.
  • Re:Sale.. (Score:3, Informative)

    by rainman_bc ( 735332 ) on Friday August 03, 2007 @11:32AM (#20102045)

    eBay is an auction. Not a sale.
    That doesn't make a difference. The questions is whether or not it's a contract.

    There's five things that make a contract:
    1. Offer
    2. Acceptance
    3. Consideration
    4. Intention
    5. Capacity

    Whether this occurs at an online auction, a B&M auction, or at a department store doesn't really matter. What matters is those five points.

    At a B&M sales, judges have decided that the offer is when the consumer takes the merchandise to the counter, and the acceptance is when the cashier rings it in. The consideration is the goods that you brought, and your intention to contract is clear when you bring that merchandise. As long as your not an invalid capacity is there.

    In an auction is clearly obvious. You offer $100,000 for a plane. The auctioneer stated that the highest winning bid will be accepted. They do this at the time they set up the auction (they COULD have set a reserve - a reserve would state that they will consider lower prices but are not bound contractually). I agree with the judge in this case - tough shit for the guy trying to weasel out of his contract - he should have looked into the value of his plane more before auctioning it on ebay.
  • by Anonymous Coward on Friday August 03, 2007 @11:33AM (#20102069)
    It wasn't a last minute offer. It was an offer after the auction closed. And the seller cannot cancel the auction after the auction has closed. That disclaimer only works up until the end of the auction.
  • by log0n ( 18224 ) on Friday August 03, 2007 @11:42AM (#20102203)
    Just a heads up (got bit by this recently - nothing sinister)... you can't cancel an auction within the last 12 or 24 hours regardless if it has bids (Ie: cancel all bids and close it - doesn't work). Once it hits that 12/24 hour point of now return, you gotta ride it.

    Used to not be like this.

    I got bit trying to sell something locally on Craigslist (obscure gear and the local market would most likely latch - but ebay was my backup), had a local buyer, but couldn't end the auction.
  • by gweihir ( 88907 ) on Friday August 03, 2007 @11:48AM (#20102289)
    The perhaps most famous case was in Gemany, were some car dealer aucioned off a new a car, but it got a pretty low price, about 25% of its worth. The seller tried to renege on the contract, but a court decided that a binding offer had been made and the car had to be sold to the highest bidder at the auction end-price. As far as I remeber no appeal was allowed because the case was obvious. So in Germany an eBay auction offer is a legally binding offer and if the highest bid is low, you have to sell for that price nonetheless.
  • Re:Ebay Item (Score:5, Informative)

    by magarity ( 164372 ) on Friday August 03, 2007 @11:54AM (#20102389)
    Models of vehicles that were build during the war years (because they were for the war) are still referred to as being a war model even if they were still in production a year later just due to association. The planes in question were apparently made from 1939 - 1946, which is definitely a war model: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CAC_Wirraway [wikipedia.org]
  • Re:Auto sales too? (Score:3, Informative)

    by debrain ( 29228 ) on Friday August 03, 2007 @11:55AM (#20102415) Journal
    I haven't read EBay's policies lately, but I think I recall that they say that auctions for cars are NOT binding contracts... I would probably expect the same to apply to airplanes, if that is still the case. Too busy to look it up now, maybe I will later or a friendly karma whore will reply :)


    Cars are typically subject to a regulatory regime and so they are often outside the laws of chattels, goods and services. Cars are also not unique, rather they are really the opposite: fungible. As a fungible entity, if a buyer breaks a deal then the seller can find another buyer fairly readily (within reason, and subject to the lost profit for that car and interest). Similarly if a seller of a car breaks a deal, the buyer can find another seller (subject to foreseeable costs of having to wait to find the another seller).

    The Court's opinion of the sale of this WWII airplane gave rise to the extraordinary remedy of 'specific enforcement' because it is a unique chattel. In other words, whereas the Court is generally inclined to award damages (fines) in lieu of the sale, in this case the seller is being subject to the government's monopoly on force in order to transfer ownership of the airplane to the buyer in exchange for the payment they had agreed upon.
  • by Control Group ( 105494 ) * on Friday August 03, 2007 @12:00PM (#20102477) Homepage
    No, it's not a mistake; it's the foundation of almost all contract law. The whole point of a contract is to guarantee future performance, be it delivery of goods, money, or service. If the contract isn't in effect until the delivery has happened, what good is the contract? As a somewhat degenerate case, if the contract isn't in effect until the money has changed hands, it would be impossible to perform a credit card transaction for more than $25 (look at the bottom of the document you sign). It would, in fact, be impossible to have a credit card, since you would claim that you didn't owe Visa any money; your contract was void until money changed hands.

    The point of purchase transaction is a special case of contract; the exchange of goods for money itself serves as the contract, as opposed to a written agreement specifying the terms of the contract.

    In the case of eBay - according, at least, to the rules promulgated by eBay, and dependent upon a US court upholding them as valid - the contract is in effect upon bid. That's what the bidder agreed to when submitting the bid, and the seller agreed to when offering the item for auction (subject to reserve price). It is no less well-defined than an exchange of money; there's no reason to think it's somehow more ambiguous.

    The point is, you can't make contracts only effective upon exchange of money, since the very idea of a contract depends upon its authority over future performance.
  • by Anonymous Coward on Friday August 03, 2007 @12:05PM (#20102537)
    Based on the article summary, what you see on gunbroker is not in conflict with this ruling.

    It sounds like the judge said, "if you agree to a sale, you cannot renege upon the agreement". The judge didn't say, "if you offer something for sale, you cannot renege the offer before it's agreed".

    For a brick-and-mortar example (sorry, no car analogy). Imagine that Store XYZ offers Product Q for sale, in a flier. Store XYZ sells out of Product Q before you get in to purchase. The store is not required to sell you Product Q, just because they offered it, and because you accepted the offer. The store doesn't have the product any more, and cannot accept your acceptance of the offer.

    Vaguely like a TCP handshake.

    Oh, and as far as, "I decide if I don't like you and don't want to do business with you". Every seller has that right. I am under no obligation to sell anything to any particular individual. If I have a legal reason (i.e. non-discriminatory) to refuse to sell you either a product or service, then I should not be forced to sell it to you.

    For example, imagine a person who, when they come into the store, bounces checks. It's reasonable for the store to refuse to take checks from them. If they cancel credit card payments, too, then it's reasonable for the store to refuse to do business with them. If they're rude to employees, or if they drive off other customers, it's still acceptable for the store to refuse them service.

    This is correct, appropriate, and The Way It's Always Been.
  • Re:Binding contract (Score:3, Informative)

    by sirwired ( 27582 ) on Friday August 03, 2007 @12:11PM (#20102603)
    That's my understanding of it. I don't know about auto auctions, because here in the US you have the lemon law that allows usually three days to return a car if it's a "lemon". That's the risk you run of an auction on eBay - someone gets it for less than you wanted to sell it for. No longer caveat emptor, but the seller too!

    Just FYI, for the next time you buy a car, there is no such law in the U.S. The actual "Lemon Law" only covers new car purchases, and has nothing to do with any "3 day rule". Have you ever seen those big stickers on used car lots that say, in inch-high letters, "AS IS"? They aren't kidding.

    Sellers are not allowed to actively commit fraud (i.e. say the has a new engine when it doesn't), but otherwise, once you buy it, it's yours, unless you have come to some previous agreement with the seller.

    There ARE "cooling off" laws, but they only cover in-home purchases (i.e. door-to-door salesmen) and home refinancing contracts.

    SirWired
  • Re:Sale.. (Score:3, Informative)

    by mcrbids ( 148650 ) on Friday August 03, 2007 @12:24PM (#20102813) Journal
    That's an agreement between you and eBay, presubambly, not you and the bidders.

    Have you read the agreement yourself? [ebay.com] Sounds like either you have not read the agreement [ebay.com], or.... (moron?) I'm hoping and praying, in the name of intellectual discussion, that it's the first. It's probably clear by the end of very first sentence, which reads:

    When a seller lists an item on eBay, and a buyer bids for and wins that item, the seller and buyer have entered into a contract.
  • by Anonymous Coward on Friday August 03, 2007 @01:19PM (#20103665)
    and pay a crapload in listing fees? are you mad?

  • by 3247 ( 161794 ) on Friday August 03, 2007 @02:25PM (#20104785) Homepage

    As far as I remeber no appeal was allowed because the case was obvious.
    Actually, there was an appeal... and another appeal on top of that.

    The first instance court, the Landgericht Münster (~ District Court of Münster) said that the "auction" was not a binding contract whereas the court of appeal, the Oberlandesgericht Hamm (~ Higher District Court of Hamm) judged that it was. This appeal decision was then confirmed by the Bundesgerichtshof (~ Federal Supreme Court).

    The bottom line(s):

    • It's not that obvious.
    • There were appeals.
    • The ruling is confirmed by the supreme court of Germany.
  • by lysse ( 516445 ) on Friday August 03, 2007 @05:09PM (#20107199)
    No, actually. At least under English law, it goes along with the doctrine that the contract of sale is formed only at the point at which an offer to purchase is accepted - so for example, in a supermarket, when the buyer presents an item to the cashier they are actually making an offer to purchase that item, and the cashier can either accept or reject that offer. "Offering" an item for sale in a shop is merely making an invitation to treat. The principle has been relied on a number of times over the last century or so; some notable cases are Pharmaceutical Society of Great Britain v Boots Cash Chemists [1953] 1 QB 401, Partridge v Crittenden [1968] 1 WLR 1204, and Fisher v Bell [1961] 1 QB 394. Of course, as a seller you can't act deceptively (eg. bait & switch), and once you've accepted an offer to purchase at a specific price you're bound by it, but up until the formation of a contract both parties have the right to walk away.

    (IANAL, this isn't advice, To Serve Man is a cookbook... you know the drill)

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