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Supreme Court Takes Nike Free Speech Case 390

MacAndrew writes "The Supreme Court has granted review in a case previously discussed here that could lead to a landmark decision regarding "commercial speech." The California Supreme Court had ruled that Nike's statements denying the use of sweatshop labor in Asia could be challenged under the state's strict truth in advertising laws, under which truth is not a defense if a statement's context is deemed misleading, First Amendment notwithstanding. The California court essentially rejected Nike's claim to heightened political speech protection -- which would have allowed the company to raise defenses of truth and due care -- reasoning that Nike's statements were calculated to induce product purchases and thus commercial speech. The U.S. Supreme Court's consideration of this case provides a clear opportunity to reconsider the controversial political-commercial speech dichotomy in constitutional law. It is essential to bear in mind the question at this point is not whether Nike did anything wrong, rather to determine the standards by which it will be judged. The commercial speech question relates to many, many topics discussed here, such as telemarketer DNC lists, telecom disclosure of customer calling data, spam, spam, and spam."
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Supreme Court Takes Nike Free Speech Case

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  • by Anonymous Coward
  • Commercial Speech (Score:2, Interesting)

    by kmweber ( 196563 )
    One question--why does commercial speech get less protection under the law than other types? Is there something inherently bad about making money?

    Speech is speech...as long as it cannot be proven false, all types of speech should receive the same protection.
    • Re:Commercial Speech (Score:5, Interesting)

      by MacAndrew ( 463832 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @05:02PM (#5063793) Homepage
      Commercial speech had no protection until a Supreme Court decision 30 years ago. Here is a helpful timeline [freedomforum.org]. The theory is that corporations are not real people, and there is a compelling public interest in regulating commercial speech to protect the health and welfare of the public -- such as the FDA requirement that drug makers as least briefly disclose side effects in those uplifting TV ads for their products. With individuals, you would not be able to compel additional speech like that. (There are doubtlessly better examples. :)

      If you look at the cases in the timeline -- esp. Hudson -- it may make better sense.
      • by UpLateDrinkingCoffee ( 605179 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @05:26PM (#5063910)
        Today it's "corporate free speech"... will it be the "corporate right to keep and bear arms" tomorrow? I think another poster had it right, corporations exist to serve the public good. Since they are entities created by law, then all their rights come from the law, not from the constitution. Considering them "persons" under the constitution is ludicrous.
        • Personhood (Score:4, Informative)

          by MacAndrew ( 463832 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @05:55PM (#5064035) Homepage
          Ah, the variety on the Internet! There's a site just for you [abolishcor...onhood.org]. (Thanks, Google.) More here [thomhartmann.com]. And even more here [reclaimdemocracy.org].

          Many do consider corporate personhood a blunder, though to be picky the law technically sees them as quasi-persons with some, not all, of the rights of citizens, and those that they do have are often reduced in scope and strength.

          I don't know of any stirring defenses of corporate personhood. However, when the 1st A. says "Congress shall make no law ... abridging the freedom of speech" is talks of the speech, not the person. The right might be argued to belong to society as well as the individual, and is the right not to have government filter what we are allowed to hear. Also, though corporation are not real persons, neither are they independent automatons. They are collections of human beings who act through the corporation form; just as the corporation has the right to sue and be sued, and in a number of other ways act as a proxy for its constituents, it should "speak."

          I don't have any great love of corporations, but can see some evil in the government manipulating what they can say, perhaps doing so out of selfish self-interest. Oh wait, I'm anthropomorphizing again.... :) Surely we do not need to apply the same rules to Nike's denying it uses sweatshops as we do to regulating precisely what "low fat" on packaging must mean -- yet that is what California would do.
        • Someone reminded me that this issue is not about corporate speech, rather commercial speech. Everyone in any business is affected, not just corporations, so Nike being a corporation is merely a distraction.
    • Comment removed (Score:5, Insightful)

      by account_deleted ( 4530225 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @05:03PM (#5063794)
      Comment removed based on user account deletion
    • by fermion ( 181285 )
      Don't be silly. Not all speech is speech. If you and I are talking about stuff, and I tell you that the Holocaust never happened, or that GW Bush is a drunken drug addict that repeatedly tried to kill children by driving drunk, or that you are an idiot, that is protected speech. You must prove that I meant injury or was in some other way malicious, and that I in fact knew that they statements were false

      OTOH, if I sell you a 14K diamond ring, and it turns out that it is pyrite cubic zirconia, you have the right to refund and damages irrelevant of my beliefs. As much as I wish to sell you worthless crap at incredible markups, that would just be wrong,

  • by Alomex ( 148003 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @04:56PM (#5063768) Homepage

    The first ammendment applies to opinions. Companies, on the other hand, offer commercial goods. If Phillip Morris states that cigarrettes do not cause cancer they are not expressing an opinion. They are describing the commercial good which they sell, and they should be held liable if the promise made is false.

    Nike made a statement about the nature of the labor that produces their goods that is an integral part of the description of the nature and quality of their goods. If they lie about it they are not just freely expressing an opinion.

    Surprisingly, it seems that the legal experts believe they *are* just expressing an opinion. A company can openly lie about the product they sell and that is AOk. If that is not orwellian 1984 I do not know what is.

    • IANAL, but it seems to me that a distinction ought to be made between a Nike rep. expressing his opinion, truthful or not, at, say, an interview or a press conference, and Nike taking out an ad in the New York Times and lying about their business practices. It seems to me that the former should be protected under the first amendment as what the linked article calls a "political" statement, but the latter, a paid advertisement, is clearly commercial speech and that it is proper to expect it to meet higher scrutiny.

      Apropos of deceptive advertising, does anybody know if those Bloussant [wellquestintl.com] pills really work? And if not, how the heck do they get away with saying their product is effective?
      • When a person is speaking is his company interest - which by assumation is always - he is using commerical speech - period. A company exists exist to make money, so a speech that members of the that company said in reguards to the company is commerical speech, first unless proven otherwise.

        That goes for a president of company giving a speech at a gratution or a cock-tail party.

        When a person is introducted or refered to by their title, only commerical speach can follow.

        Only if someone starts out by saying "My opinion..." or "I think..." is there a change that what follows is what they think and not an add for the company they work for. Same as if you where in court.

        Did you ever wonder why everyone started to legal disclaimers on the bottom of thier emails?

      • IANAL, but it seems to me that a distinction ought to be made between a Nike rep. expressing his opinion, truthful or not, at, say, an interview or a press conference, and Nike taking out an ad in the New York Times and lying about their business practices. It seems to me that the former should be protected under the first amendment as what the linked article calls a "political" statement, but the latter, a paid advertisement, is clearly commercial speech and that it is proper to expect it to meet higher scrutiny.


        Well that's the point of this case, to determine just where exactly the line is to be drawn.


        Frankly, though, right now it's bullshit. Companies can claim free speach protection, yet organizations such as the EFF and Unions can't. That's a large part of what makes it so messed up. If we WERE going to give corporations free speach protection across the board, we SHOULD give ALL groups of people/organizations the same protections and we don't.

        • by xigxag ( 167441 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @07:22PM (#5064439)
          Well that's the point of this case, to determine just where exactly the line is to be drawn.

          That's partially true, but this case goes further than that. Those on the side of the defense are arguing that there should be no line at all. They are claiming there should be no special category of "commercial speech," that speech by a company should have the same protection as speech by any individual. However, it would be correct to state that companies could then say anything with impunity, after all, even you and I with the full protection of the first amendment can still be sued for defamatory, slanderous, negligent, fraudulent or other tortuous speech of one kind or another.

          The issue is whether or not a special category of less-protected "commercial" speech should exist. Clarence Thomas, in his concurring opinion [cornell.edu] to 517 U,S, 484 (1996), plainly says that, "I do not see a philosophical or historical basis for asserting that 'commercial' speech is of 'lower value' than 'noncommercial' speech. Indeed, some historical materials suggest to the contrary. " See also this article [cato.org] by Jonathan W. Emord which argues in favor of abolishing the distinction. (The seminal article espousing this position seems to be A. Kozinski and S. Banner, "Who's Afraid of Com mercial Speech?", but I can't find it online.)

    • Read the first amendment sometime, why don't you!

      IT doesn't make any distinction between opinions or whether someone makes commerical goods or not.

      It says "Congress shall make NO LAW restricting..." No qualifications. No quibbles.

      Fraud, is a completely different matter- fraud isn't speach, its deception.

      There is no allegation that Nike committed fraud here.

      • Read the first amendment sometime, why don't you!

        I'll make you a deal: I'll reread the first amendment if you read up on libel and fraud as defined by law and fully consistent with the first amendment...

      • Read the first amendment sometime, why don't you!

        Yeah, but Nike isn't a citizen of the US, it's only a corporation. Corporations shouldn't have rights.

        • Got it in one (Score:4, Insightful)

          by vandan ( 151516 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @09:33PM (#5064834) Homepage
          This is one of the central problems with capitalism.
          Corporations should ONLY have rights when those rights don't conflict with the rights of any other person, animal or plant on the planet. We are alive. They are constructions supposedely build to better our environment.
          Note the word 'capitalism'. The capital has all the rights. This must change if we are to survive.
      • The problem is, what do you understand under "speech"?

        Going by Mirriam-Webster, there are several meanings to "speech". (You must understand, English is not my native tongue, so I like to refer to authorities on that matter).

        Am I correct, that when using the word "speech", you have broader meaning in mind?
        Speech as in utterance of words.

        So, isn't libel and slander protected by the first amendement? I can think of many ways one can utter words, which would considered as unlawful, as you can surely, too.

        So, speech seems to me quite open to interpretation.
        And since we are human, we're able follow the intent of the constitution, not the letters.

        Lastly, no one is prohibiting them to say what they want. They are denying them to use advertisements to do so.
        They are still free to express their words, like most people do. Maybe they can get their employees to demonstrate in front of the capitol.
        • Am I correct, that when using the word "speech", you have broader meaning in mind?

          Yes, the Right to Free Speech includes any communications that convey a message. This is not limited to the spoken word. It includes writings, paintings, and even actions like burning a draft card.

          isn't libel and slander protected by the first amendement?

          No. Libel and slander are deliberate lies to hurt a person. However, libel and slander are not easy to prove. You must not only prove that the statement is false; but, that the person making it knew it was false. And, you must show that you have been harmed by the statement.

          no one is prohibiting them to say what they want.

          Actually, they are. The activist is using a law that only applies to corperations. The activist is saying that since Nike "lied" they should be sued. However, the activist can legally lie as long as it is not slander or libel.

  • by AltImage ( 626465 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @04:57PM (#5063774) Homepage
    Just Sue It.
  • ...I wonder if I am hypocritical in my reasoning.

    I think Nike and any other company that exploits 3rd world labour forces, should be taken to the cleaners. They are as despicable as big tobacco, and just as ugly. I would support any other company that makes a sneaker that is as comfortable and lasts as long.
    Nike is no dummy when it comes to marketing. Considering that nearly everyone wears shoes at some point in the day, it is a cut throat market. I'm sure many good companies have gone the way of the dodo, because American law didn't provide them with adaquate protection from companies like Nike who exploit the human race.
    • by macdaddy357 ( 582412 ) <macdaddy357@hotmail.com> on Saturday January 11, 2003 @05:28PM (#5063918)
      Nike shoes are made in third-world sweatshops, often, by children. New Balance shoes are made in the USA by adults, and fit better too. Maye they'll use that in an advertisement.
  • NOT Speech (Score:3, Insightful)

    by evilviper ( 135110 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @05:04PM (#5063804) Journal
    It is, without a doubt, NOT speech. Speech is expression or opinion... Nike made an incorrect statement of fact (ig. they lied). There is no artistic value in that.

    Next we'll be able to advertise false prices, and make other false claims and say it was just speech.

    If this gets an okay, the US will be the ultimate politican's paradise, as you can make any statement, and there are no criminal or civil penalties.

    "Yes, my client confessed to murder, but that was protected speech, so you can't use it... Nah nah!"
  • by release7 ( 545012 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @05:06PM (#5063807) Homepage Journal
    The constitution did not grant the right of free speech to corporations. It wasn't until the late 1800s did a court ruling determine that corporations were people and thus were entitled to the same rights as flesh and blood citizens.

    Corporations are supposed to server the greater good. But the drive for profit at all costs does not serve society well at all; it serves only a handful of shareholders looking to make a return on an investment. It's absurd to give powerful corporations the right to flagrantly violate laws of human decency in order to improve the bottom line.

    • > Corporations are supposed to server the greater good.

      Oops. One too many "r"s. Was that serve or sever?

      Seems it's just a "before" and "after" alternative ...

    • It wasn't until the late 1800s did a court ruling determine that corporations were people and thus were entitled to the same rights as flesh and blood citizens.
    • by Broadcatch ( 100226 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @05:55PM (#5064040) Homepage
      It wasn't until the late 1800s did a court ruling determine that corporations were people and thus were entitled to the same rights as flesh and blood citizens.
      Actually, it was more like this:
      In the 1886 Santa Clara County vs. Southern Pacific Railroad case, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the state tax assessor, not the county assessor, had the right to determine the taxable value of fenceposts along the railroad's right-of-way.

      However, in writing up the case's headnote -- a commentary that has no precedential status -- the Court's reporter, a former railroad president named J.C. Bancroft Davis, opened the headnote with the sentence: "The defendant Corporations are persons within the intent of the clause in section 1 of the Fourteen Amendment to the Constitution of the United States, which forbids a State to deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

      For the complete background, and very interesting reading, see Humans Vs. Corporations [ratical.org] or if that's /.ed, try here [activism.net].
      • The Santa Clara story is interesting, but I can find no support for it anti-corporation sites that are more or less quoting each other. In legal sources I see nothing. Also, not only does the decision itself [tourolaw.edu] not address personhood, it quotes the Chief Justice as saying, "The court does not wish to hear argument on the question whether the provision in the Fourteenth Amendment to the Constitution, which forbids a State to deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws, applies to these corporations. We are all of opinion that it does."

        It would be error to cite the decision for the proposition of "personhood" -- editorial headnotes indeed carry no weight -- but sloppy citation doesn't mean corporations are believed "persons" thanks to some long-forgotten error. The courts are not that goofy, and believe me every litigant who might benefit would have been raising it in their arguments ever since. All that's left is conspiracy theory.

        I don't recall the actual origin or corporate rights, though I assume they for example have been able to sue and be sued from day 1. As for personhood, it may be just a bad metaphor. I am interested in learning its origin.
  • by UpLateDrinkingCoffee ( 605179 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @05:13PM (#5063840)
    Check out this [reclaimdemocracy.org] web site if you care about the issue. I have no affiliation with them, but they put into words what I have been thinking for a long time about considering corporations "persons" under the U.S. constitution and granting them the rights traditionally associated with individuals such as free speech.

    It's thought provoking reading nonetheless. Check it out...

  • by Will_Malverson ( 105796 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @05:14PM (#5063845) Journal
    It boils down to this: Activists said misleading (but not legally false) things about Nike. Nike responded to those unkind statements with "misleading" (but not legally false) statements. Nike is in trouble for "misleading" commercial speech.

    "Commercial speech" is...what, exactly? Speech designed to tell you how to spend your money. Perhaps the activists' speech is also therefore commercial speech. If it's truly misleading, then the activists in question should be held accountable for it.
    • by rocketfairy ( 16253 ) <nmt2002.columbia@edu> on Saturday January 11, 2003 @05:31PM (#5063933) Homepage
      Actually, no one is really claiming in court that activists made misleading statements. Nike has staunchly refused to claim in court that the activists were misleading, because they know they'd lose the case that way. They're defending their right to lie about their products and mislead the public into buying them; there is no parallel.
    • >If it's truly misleading, then the activists in question should be held accountable for it

      I dont see how you can say that the activists' speech is equal to a corporations speech. I would venture to say that the activists in question did not benefit significantly from a lack of Nike sales, where on the otherhand, Nike does benefit from the sales of there shoes.

      Why do we have truth in advertising laws? I would think that the main reason is to protect consumers. What's to protect Nike and consumers from inaccurate activist speech? Nothing, but the incentive to lie is much greater for Nike than for individuals who have no stake.

  • Free Speech (Score:4, Interesting)

    by Sunlighter ( 177996 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @05:17PM (#5063862)

    ''Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.''

    I fail to see any distinction between commercial and political speech in the amendment. The distinction is something the Supreme Court invented in the 1960s.

  • While there is no question that most spam is commercial advertising and some even call spam "UCE", that is a correlation, not an inherent truth. Commerce is just the most common motive for spam, as it is the most common motive for many things.

    Spam is sending bulk mail to people who don't know you. The first USENET spams weren't commercial. The first big one told people Jesus was Coming.

    Today the most common spam I get offers to transfer TWENTY-TWO MILLION DOLLARS from a nigerian bank account to me. It's not commercial at all, it's a confidence trick. (Already criminal too, but that doesn't seem to be stopping the flood of them.)

    So while what the surpreme court rules on commercial speech will have bearing on the attempted spam laws which focus on this, they are going after a symptom, and not the reality of spam.
  • Nike's supporters (Score:4, Insightful)

    by MacAndrew ( 463832 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @05:23PM (#5063894) Homepage
    Many powerful supporters of Nike's position have come forward, and not because they're soft on sweatshops. Representing them is legendary constitutional scholar Laurence Tribe, as well as former solicitor general Walter Dellinger. Moreover [nylawyer.com], "Liberal groups like the American Civil Liberties Union and conservatives such as Sacramento's Pacific Legal Foundation were equally appalled by the decision...." These groups were joined by "32 leading media outlets -- including ABC, NBC, CBS, The New York Times Co. and The Washington Post Co. -- as well as the California Chamber of Commerce and corporate big hitters such as Microsoft Corp. and Bank of America. All want the high court to grant certiorari and reverse the ruling."

    This isn't just a question of a wealthy company hiring a lot of firepower. It concerns IMHO a grievously bad decision concerning free speech. As one of the Calif. SC dissents comments, the line between commercial and personal speech has become blurred, and to prevent a corporation from defending itself by denying the same free speech protection accorded its critics is an injustice, and casts a chilling effect on corporate speech we may well want to hear.

    What it boils down to is whether Nike should be held to a uniquely harsh standard where not only their words but the context of the words could lead them to court. Sometimes even lies deserve protection, if they promote free discourse, and we're not talking defamation in the present case, more like truth in advertising. The classic remedy for bad speech is more speech, by critics ... and not a lawsuit.

    Finally, what the California SC ruled on was not on Nike's guilt or innocence, but rather on the constitutional standard to be applied to it and every single future corporate defendant. Without Supreme Court review, other states might follow this lead.

    My prediction (and predictions are a gamble [lawpsided.com]) is that the Supreme Court will reverse, and change some precedent along the way. Commercial speech doctrine is 30 years young, so it is still being developed. Before the 70's it had no protection at all. IMHO the standards for political and commercial speech should be unified into a single standard, with an element of the test weighing the "political" nature of the speech so that ordinary and constructive regulation of commercial speech need not be interpreted as the sort of prior restraint forbidden for political speech.
    • Nice writing... how much were you paid?

      You do not see the difference?

      Nike exists but for one thing -- MONEY.

      That is it. Nike does not vote. Nike kills someone, it is not killed or locked up. Nike steals millions, it is not punished - it pays a find and writes it off as "cost of doing business"

      That is true for any corporation.

      When Nike got its hand "caught in the cookie jar", it did like any kid does "told a yarn" - but Nike is not alive - it can not talk for itself - so others did. Others that Nike paid to talk for Nike. It is called "P.R.".

      "P.R." is advertising - period. "Spinning" is advertising - actually there is NO speech made a corporation that is commerical speech. If Nike gave $1 Million to a school, everyone would know, why? Because it is good "P.R.", it is good advertising.

      Nike's supporters are they - becuase they are "bought". ACLU likes getting moeny to support their goals, just as every polication. Other corporations like the possiblity that they too can "lie" - have you heard of Enron?

      Like I asked "What was your price?" P.R. gig, Head of Corporation? Dollars?
      • Nike kills someone, it is not killed or locked up.

        You are not consistent in your arguement. On the one hand, you say that "Nike" shouldn't have the Rigth to Free Speech because it isn't a person. On the other, you want to lock up "Nike" if it kills someone. How do you lockup a non-person.

        • But I am - Nike is not person - it is company.

          It can not eat, but has many stomachs.
          It can not talk, but fills every media it needs with it words.

          If Nike was a person and it kills some one - then it would be locked up... but instead it pays a money and emits no fault.

          It is not subject to the same laws as person - nor can it be... so why does it get a pass of Free Speech?
  • ...then fraud would become a non-crime. Not that great of an outcome, huh?

  • A shoe company that thinks its something more than a shoe company complains about other people complaining.

    Pass the shotgun, please.

  • by fermion ( 181285 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @05:52PM (#5064021) Homepage Journal
    To clarify, the issue is whether a corporation can make statements that it believes are true, but turn out not be true,. For the individual, most speech is going to be protected. If one makes statements, one, at least in the US, is protected from direct liability of those statements unless it can be proved that they were malicious or purposefully misleading.

    On the other hand, commercial speech is held to a higher standard,. When a corporation makes a statement, it is assumed that the statements will greatly influence purchase decisions. For instance, Pizza Hut and Papa Johns were having quite a tiff a while back. The latter was insulting the formers sauce, and the former was insulting the latters water quality, Law suits ensued over truth in advertising. Clearly, if these statement were made by individuals in the street, there would be little contention. But misrepresenting commercial products is a different things.

    As I understand it, the issue is whether a company can make public statement that it believes are true but are in fact false. For such a standard, we must accept the proposition the company officials make statements external to the PR machine. In the contemporary corporate world, this seems quite unlikely as communication is quite controlled (think fuckedcompany.com). It seems quite unlikely that statements made to the media are meant to be anything other than advertising. If it is advertising, then just thinking it is true is not enough.

    • I agree with you, just offering a few refinements that I hope are helpful...

      Re 1st A., the "malice" standard of regard for truthfulness is for cases of defamatory speech re public figures. For otehr circumstances, mere negligence (carelessness) can yield liability.

      An individual can make commercial speech just as much as a corporation. Whether one is a corporatiion is irrelevant.

      Didn't know about the sauce and water. Who won?

      At issue is something a bit more subtle -- under CA trade law, Nike can get tagged for making truthful statements that through their context are misleading. This is far greater liability that sweeps up many mere mistakes.

      Businesses can make pure political statements which may or may not have profit motive. (I also know somne individuals who act only out of profit motive. They have the same rights I do.) Disney spoke up in favor of the Sonny Bono Act, for example (profit motive); an incorporated church group might register its opinions about abortion; NBC might comment on a proposed censorship law; and so on.

      It seems to me copanies should held to their word what they write on a product label, and more leniently when commenting on the state of the Union. The line between ad and political statement is getting blurry, esp. with large companies wielding so much economic and political influence today. This is not necessarily a bad thingh; frankly I'm interested in hearing what an employer of 500,000 people thinks of the economy.
  • how free is free? (Score:2, Insightful)

    by matt4077 ( 581118 )
    Great to see, that slashdot anti-capitalism beats slashdot information-wants-to-be-free-sentiments anytime.

    The point is not wether we like Nike or not. It should not even be wether Nike wants to sell stuff or not. The problem is: once "commercial" speech looses its freedom, you get a really big problem deciding what "commercial" means.

    If I say that Bush is gay, is that a commercial statement? Maybe I'm selling pink suits in Bush's size. Does that make it commercial? The point is: you don't want a court to decide what is commercial and what is not.

  • Anyone remember when some guy wanted to get some "Nike ID" personalized running shoes with "Sweatshop" on them. The guy published his experiences on the web. [shey.net]
  • Le sigh (Score:5, Insightful)

    by Dannon ( 142147 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @06:12PM (#5064125) Journal
    truth is not a defense if a statement's context is deemed misleading

    My strict translation of this phrase: Even if what you said was the strict, factual truth, if anyone thinks you were lying, you've broken the law.

    Heaven save us from fools with lawyers.
  • by Paul Johnson ( 33553 ) on Saturday January 11, 2003 @06:21PM (#5064171) Homepage
    If opinions are "commercial" speech then it becomes very difficult for you to express an opinion on any company in which you have an interest, especially if that interest is positive. It will be considered to be "advertising". This makes inroads into the free speech of individuals by affecting what they are allowed to say on certain topics, and will also have a chilling effect because of the broad legislation under which such speech could be prosecuted.

    The alternative is that companies will be able to say anything outside of "advertisements" without fear of being prosecuted. I don't see this as a problem. If they lie, someone else can tell the truth. Provided that the company isn't paying for coverage (a good definition of advertising) then access for the little guy isn't the problem.

    Paul.

  • by mark-t ( 151149 ) <markt AT nerdflat DOT com> on Saturday January 11, 2003 @06:43PM (#5064275) Journal
    Almost everyone I know knows that Nike has these "sweatshops", but yet Nike doesn't seem to be lacking for any business. Since these labour facilities are not on North American soil, even though Nike has substantial presence in America, they wouldn't have any reason for foreign work environments to be held accountable to western civilzation standards.

    As a nationally local example of this, consider a people who flip burgers at a McDonald's restaurant. Since minimum wage varies considerably depending on locale, the same income standards that apply to more expensive areas don't apply the poorer ones. By the same token, we can't presume to enforce North American labour standards on foreign work environments.

    Since running these things presumably isn't illegal there, Nike wouldn't stand to lose anything commercially if they just admitted the truth. The only thing that Nike stands to lose is how highly the general public thinks of them, but it seems like everyone already knows the truth anyways, so what difference would it make?

    None, as far as I can see.

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